Re: Faut-il arrêter l'Euro ?

Si l'Allemagne était souveraine, pourquoi FR/US/UK ont signé le Traité de Moscou)? "Avec ce traité l’Allemagne retrouve sa souveraineté pleine et entière. Elle redevient un État comme les autres."

Parce que qu'ils avaient conservé une option sur la réunification précisément et veillé à limiter le pouvoir des juridictions ouest-allemandes sur ce qui avait été établi durant l'occupation. C'est expliqué dans l'étude[PDF] citée dans la page anglaise concernant les Accords de Paris de 55:

Article 1 of Schedule I of the Settlement Convention provides that the Federal Republic of Germany is accorded “the full authority of a sovereign State over its internal and external affairs”. However, Article 2 provides that the Three Powers retain their rights “relating to Berlin and to Germany as a whole, including the reunification of Germany and a peace settlement.”

The Settlement Convention had a considerable impact on the administration of justice. For example, whereas the Federal and the Land authorities were given powers to repeal or amend legislation enacted by the Occupation Authorities, rights and obligations created or established under legislative, administrative or judicial action of the Occupation Authorities remained valid for all purposes under German law.

Furthermore, German courts were barred from prosecuting individuals who sympathized with or aided the Three Powers or their Allies. This limitation on German jurisdiction was intended to ensure that acts undertaken by the Allies during the German occupation were not questioned retroactively. In order to regain the full status of a sovereign state, Germany had to accept such restrictions on the jurisdiction of its courts both in 1954 and in 1990. To quote a decision of the European Court of Human Rights in July of this year, Germany had “no choice.” Indeed, the limitation of Germany’s jurisdiction was absolute and a force majeur.

Selon la manière dont un prend le problème, l'Allemagne n'était pas plus/moins sous tutelle (qui est un terme très fort) en 90 qu'en 55.

Surtout en ce qui nous concerne ici : tu crois vraiment que si les USA, la France et/ou le Royaume-Uni avait été en mesure de dicter la politique monétaire ouest-allemande, il s'en seraient privés ? j'en doute :

By 1971, the money supply had increased by 10%.[5] In May 1971, West Germany was the first to leave the Bretton Woods system, unwilling to devalue the Deutsche Mark in order to prop up the dollar.[3] In the following three months, this move strengthened its economy. Simultaneously, the dollar dropped 7.5% against the Deutsche Mark.[3] Other nations began to demand redemption of their dollars for gold. Switzerland redeemed 50ドル million in July.[3] France acquired 191ドル million in gold.[3] On August 5, 1971, the United States Congress released a report recommending devaluation of the dollar, in an effort to protect the dollar against "foreign price-gougers".[3] On August 9, 1971, as the dollar dropped in value against European currencies, Switzerland left the Bretton Woods system.[3] The pressure began to intensify on the United States to leave Bretton Woods.