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Lagrange's theorem (number theory)

From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Theorem in number theory
For Lagrange's other theorems, see Lagrange's theorem (disambiguation).

In number theory, Lagrange's theorem is a statement named after Joseph-Louis Lagrange about how frequently a polynomial over the integers may evaluate to a multiple of a fixed prime p. More precisely, it states that for all integer polynomials f Z [ x ] {\displaystyle \textstyle f\in \mathbb {Z} [x]} {\displaystyle \textstyle f\in \mathbb {Z} [x]}, either:

  • every coefficient of f is divisible by p, or
  • p f ( x ) {\displaystyle p\mid f(x)} {\displaystyle p\mid f(x)} has at most deg f solutions in {1, 2, ..., p},

where deg f is the degree of f.

This can be stated with congruence classes as follows: for all polynomials f ( Z / p Z ) [ x ] {\displaystyle \textstyle f\in (\mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} )[x]} {\displaystyle \textstyle f\in (\mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} )[x]} with p prime, either:

  • every coefficient of f is null, or
  • f ( x ) = 0 {\displaystyle f(x)=0} {\displaystyle f(x)=0} has at most deg f solutions in Z / p Z {\displaystyle \mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} } {\displaystyle \mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} }.

If p is not prime, then there can potentially be more than deg f(x) solutions. Consider for example p=8 and the polynomial f(x)=x2−1, where 1, 3, 5, 7 are all solutions.

Proof

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Let f Z [ x ] {\displaystyle \textstyle f\in \mathbb {Z} [x]} {\displaystyle \textstyle f\in \mathbb {Z} [x]} be an integer polynomial, and write g ∈ (Z/pZ)[x] the polynomial obtained by taking its coefficients mod p. Then, for all integers x,

f ( x ) 0 ( mod p ) g ( x ) 0 ( mod p ) {\displaystyle f(x)\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}\quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad g(x)\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}} {\displaystyle f(x)\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}\quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad g(x)\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}}.

Furthermore, by the basic rules of modular arithmetic,

f ( x ) 0 ( mod p ) f ( x mod p ) 0 ( mod p ) g ( x mod p ) 0 ( mod p ) {\displaystyle f(x)\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}\quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad f(x{\bmod {p}})\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}\quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad g(x{\bmod {p}})\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}} {\displaystyle f(x)\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}\quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad f(x{\bmod {p}})\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}\quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad g(x{\bmod {p}})\equiv 0{\pmod {p}}}.

Both versions of the theorem (over Z and over Z/pZ) are thus equivalent. We prove the second version by induction on the degree, in the case where the coefficients of f are not all null.

If deg f = 0 then f has no roots and the statement is true.

If deg f ≥ 1 without roots then the statement is also trivially true.

Otherwise, deg f ≥ 1 and f has a root k Z / p Z {\displaystyle k\in \mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} } {\displaystyle k\in \mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} }. The fact that Z/pZ is a field allows to apply the division algorithm to f and the polynomial xk (of degree 1), which yields the existence of a polynomial g ( Z / p Z ) [ x ] {\displaystyle \textstyle g\in (\mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} )[x]} {\displaystyle \textstyle g\in (\mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} )[x]} (of degree lower than that of f) and of a constant r Z / p Z {\displaystyle \textstyle r\in \mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} } {\displaystyle \textstyle r\in \mathbb {Z} /p\mathbb {Z} } (of degree lower than 1) such that

f ( x ) = g ( x ) ( x k ) + r . {\displaystyle f(x)=g(x)(x-k)+r.} {\displaystyle f(x)=g(x)(x-k)+r.}

Evaluating at x = k provides r = 0.[1] The other roots of f are then roots of g as well, which by the induction property are at most deg g ≤ deg f − 1 in number. This proves the result.

Generalization

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Let p(X) be a polynomial over an integral domain R with degree n > 0. Then the polynomial equation p(x) = 0 has at most n = deg(p(X)) roots in R.[2]

References

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