The Fibonacci sequence is a sequence of numbers, where every number in the sequence is the sum of the two numbers preceding it. The first two numbers in the sequence are both 1. Here are the first few terms:
1 1 2 3 5 8 13 21 34 55 89 ...
Write the shortest code that either, in accordance to the standard sequence rules:
Generates the Fibonacci sequence without end.
Given
n
calculates then
th term of the sequence. (Either 1 or zero indexed)Given
n
calculates the firstn
terms of the sequence
You may use standard forms of input and output.
For the function that takes an n
, a reasonably large return value (the largest Fibonacci number that fits your computer's normal word size, at a minimum) has to be supported.
Leaderboard
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354 Answers 354
Brainfuck, 22 bytes
+>++[-<<[->+>+<<]>>>+]
Generates the Fibonacci sequence gradually moving across the memory tape.
-
6\$\begingroup\$ Beautiful! Litterally beautiful! Or perhaps not... anyways +1 for this :) \$\endgroup\$Per Hornshøj-Schierbeck– Per Hornshøj-Schierbeck2011年08月18日 11:20:51 +00:00Commented Aug 18, 2011 at 11:20
-
3\$\begingroup\$ This is 3.344 or 4 bytes in compressed brainfuck. (6 ln(22)) / ln(256) \$\endgroup\$Will Sherwood– Will Sherwood2016年02月02日 05:12:10 +00:00Commented Feb 2, 2016 at 5:12
-
36\$\begingroup\$ 16 bytes:
+[[<+>->+>+<<]>]
\$\endgroup\$primo– primo2016年09月12日 05:19:16 +00:00Commented Sep 12, 2016 at 5:19 -
13\$\begingroup\$ 14 bytes:
+[.[>+>+<<-]>]
\$\endgroup\$Charlim– Charlim2019年02月10日 20:38:41 +00:00Commented Feb 10, 2019 at 20:38 -
4\$\begingroup\$ @Stefnotch of course, the shorter one is destructive. The solution above terminates with the fibonacci sequence on the tape, which is what the 16 byte solution also does. \$\endgroup\$primo– primo2019年02月13日 01:30:16 +00:00Commented Feb 13, 2019 at 1:30
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7\$\begingroup\$ Why not cut two spaces to
f=0:scanl(+)1 f
? \$\endgroup\$R. Martinho Fernandes– R. Martinho Fernandes2011年01月28日 02:27:50 +00:00Commented Jan 28, 2011 at 2:27 -
\$\begingroup\$ Wow, that's even shorter than the usual
f@(_:x)=0:1:zipWith(+)f x
! Have to remember it. \$\endgroup\$FUZxxl– FUZxxl2011年02月11日 21:10:05 +00:00Commented Feb 11, 2011 at 21:10 -
7\$\begingroup\$ You may even strip another space:
f=0:scanl(+)1f
. \$\endgroup\$FUZxxl– FUZxxl2011年02月12日 17:38:11 +00:00Commented Feb 12, 2011 at 17:38
Perl 6, 10 chars:
Anonymous infinite fibonacci sequence list:
^2,*+*...*
Same as:
0, 1, -> $x, $y { $x + $y } ... Inf;
So, you can assign it to an array:
my @short-fibs = ^2, * + * ... *;
or
my @fibs = 0, 1, -> $x, $y { $x + $y } ... Inf;
And get the first eleven values (from 0 to 10) with:
say @short-fibs[^11];
or with:
say @fibs[^11];
Wait, you can get too the first 50 numbers from anonymous list itself:
say (^2,*+*...*)[^50]
That returns:
0 1 1 2 3 5 8 13 21 34 55 89 144 233 377 610 987 1597 2584 4181 6765
10946 17711 28657 46368 75025 121393 196418 317811 514229 832040
1346269 2178309 3524578 5702887 9227465 14930352 24157817 39088169
63245986 102334155 165580141 267914296 433494437 701408733 1134903170
1836311903 2971215073 4807526976 7778742049
And some simple benchmark:
real 0m0.966s
user 0m0.842s
sys 0m0.080s
With:
$ time perl6 -e 'say (^2, *+* ... *)[^50]'
EOF
-
2\$\begingroup\$ I wouldn't even think of
^2
as replacement for0,1
. +1 \$\endgroup\$null– null2015年01月03日 20:20:46 +00:00Commented Jan 3, 2015 at 20:20 -
4\$\begingroup\$ This is no longer valid, you will have to write it as
|^2,*+*...*
, which is the same number of bytes as0,1,*+*...*
. \$\endgroup\$Brad Gilbert b2gills– Brad Gilbert b2gills2015年11月08日 20:20:05 +00:00Commented Nov 8, 2015 at 20:20 -
10\$\begingroup\$ Perl is so weird. \$\endgroup\$Cyoce– Cyoce2016年01月29日 05:45:00 +00:00Commented Jan 29, 2016 at 5:45
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2\$\begingroup\$ What version of Perl 6 was this answer written in? \$\endgroup\$CalculatorFeline– CalculatorFeline2017年06月06日 22:03:12 +00:00Commented Jun 6, 2017 at 22:03
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4\$\begingroup\$ @CalculatorFeline There was a big change known as GLR (Great List Refactor) which happened shortly before the first official release which was on 2015年12月25日. This code would have worked right up until that time. \$\endgroup\$Brad Gilbert b2gills– Brad Gilbert b2gills2018年03月12日 21:30:49 +00:00Commented Mar 12, 2018 at 21:30
C# 4, 58 bytes
Stream (69; 65 if weakly typed to IEnumerable
)
(Assuming a using
directive for System.Collections.Generic
.)
IEnumerable<int>F(){int c=0,n=1;for(;;){yield return c;n+=c;c=n-c;}}
Single value (58)
int F(uint n,int x=0,int y=1){return n<1?x:F(n-1,y,x+y);}
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7\$\begingroup\$ Given that
n
is auint
,n==0
can be shortened ton<1
. And the stream can save a few chars by ditching the space after the generic type and declaringx
in a wider scope than necessary. In fact, ditchx
entirely:n+=c;c=n-c;
\$\endgroup\$Peter Taylor– Peter Taylor2011年08月18日 11:39:18 +00:00Commented Aug 18, 2011 at 11:39 -
2\$\begingroup\$ @Peter: Thanks, will edit when I get some time. \$\endgroup\$Jon Skeet– Jon Skeet2011年08月18日 12:01:22 +00:00Commented Aug 18, 2011 at 12:01
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\$\begingroup\$ Your single value version is as long as my recursive lambda expression answer...nice! \$\endgroup\$Andrew Gray– Andrew Gray2013年04月09日 17:29:37 +00:00Commented Apr 9, 2013 at 17:29
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1\$\begingroup\$ @wizzwizz4 if I'm not mistaken, if
!n
works, then so should justn
if you flip the conditional. \$\endgroup\$Cyoce– Cyoce2018年02月01日 04:07:42 +00:00Commented Feb 1, 2018 at 4:07 -
6\$\begingroup\$ @JonSkeet Aw. And here I was thinking I'd beaten Jon Skeet at C#... :-) \$\endgroup\$wizzwizz4– wizzwizz42018年02月01日 20:16:34 +00:00Commented Feb 1, 2018 at 20:16
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\$\begingroup\$ +1 nice work. If you make it shorter than 13 chars, I'll instantly accept your answer (unless someone makes an even shorter answer, of course). :-P \$\endgroup\$C. K. Young– C. K. Young2011年01月29日 23:54:08 +00:00Commented Jan 29, 2011 at 23:54
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1\$\begingroup\$ I love a challenge. Done! ;-) \$\endgroup\$jtjacques– jtjacques2011年01月30日 00:10:12 +00:00Commented Jan 30, 2011 at 0:10
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\$\begingroup\$ Nice, you win. At least, until someone makes something even shorter (if that's even possible). :-P \$\endgroup\$C. K. Young– C. K. Young2011年01月30日 00:33:44 +00:00Commented Jan 30, 2011 at 0:33
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7\$\begingroup\$ that definition is almost as short as the name 'Fibonacci' itself! +1 \$\endgroup\$agent-j– agent-j2012年06月18日 18:21:35 +00:00Commented Jun 18, 2012 at 18:21
Hexagony, (削除) 18 (削除ここまで) (削除) 14 (削除ここまで) 12
Thanks Martin for 6 bytes!
1="/}.!+/M8;
Expanded:
1 = "
/ } . !
+ / M 8 ;
. . . .
. . .
Old, answer. This is being left in because the images and explanation might be helpful to new Hexagony users.
!).={!/"*10;$.[+{]
Expanded:
! ) .
= { ! /
" * 1 0 ;
$ . [ +
{ ] .
This prints the Fibonacci sequence separated by newlines.
Try it online! Be careful though, the online interpreter doesn't really like infinite output.
Explanation
There are two "subroutines" to this program, each is run by one of the two utilised IPs. The first routine prints newlines, and the second does the Fibonacci calculation and output.
The first subroutine starts on the first line and moves left to right the entire time. It first prints the value at the memory pointer (initialized to zero), and then increments the value at the memory pointer by 1
. After the no-op, the IP jumps to the third line which first switches to another memory cell, then prints a newline. Since a newline has a positive value (its value is 10), the code will always jump to the fifth line, next. The fifth line returns the memory pointer to our Fibonacci number and then switches to the other subroutine. When we get back from this subroutine, the IP will jump back to the third line, after executing a no-op.
The second subroutine begins at the top right corner and begins moving Southeast. After a no-op, we are bounced to travel West along the second line. This line prints the current Fibonacci number, before moving the memory pointer to the next location. Then the IP jumps to the fourth line, where it computes the next Fibonacci number using the previous two. It then gives control back to the first subroutine, but when it regains control of the program, it continues until it meets a jump, where it bounces over the mirror that was originally used to point it West, as it returns to the second line.
Preliminary Pretty Pictures!
The left side of the image is the program, the right hand side represents the memory. The blue box is the first IP, and both IPs are pointing at the next instruction to be executed.
Note: Pictures may only appear pretty to people who have similarly limited skill with image editing programs :P I will add at least 2 more iterations so that the use of the *
operator becomes more clear.
Note 2: I only saw alephalpha's answer after writing most of this, I figured it was still valuable because of the separation, but the actual Fibonacci parts of our programs are very similar. In addition, this is the smallest Hexagony program that I have seen making use of more than one IP, so I thought it might be good to keep anyway :P
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\$\begingroup\$ You should link to whatever you used to make the pretty pictures, then put the link on esolangs.org/wiki/Hexagony. \$\endgroup\$mbomb007– mbomb0072016年01月20日 22:32:03 +00:00Commented Jan 20, 2016 at 22:32
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1\$\begingroup\$ @mbomb007 I used gimp to manually create each frame, then uploaded the images to some gif making website. Although, several times during this process I considered making a tool to do it, considering how tedious it was. \$\endgroup\$FryAmTheEggman– FryAmTheEggman2016年01月20日 22:36:20 +00:00Commented Jan 20, 2016 at 22:36
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\$\begingroup\$ @FryAmTheEggman Impressive! Make it a challenge. I'm sure somebody will post an answer. :D Even better if you could create a website similar to fish's online interpreter. \$\endgroup\$mbomb007– mbomb0072016年01月20日 22:37:35 +00:00Commented Jan 20, 2016 at 22:37
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\$\begingroup\$ @mbomb007 That might be a tad ambitious for a challenge on this site, not to mention it would probably suffer a lot from being really broad. I don't think I will post that, but feel free to do it yourself if you think you have a good way of presenting it. Also, I believe Timwi created a C# ide for hexagony, although I've never used it because I haven't bothered with mono. \$\endgroup\$FryAmTheEggman– FryAmTheEggman2016年01月20日 22:44:36 +00:00Commented Jan 20, 2016 at 22:44
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1\$\begingroup\$ @mbomb007 The ide lives here, by the way, forgot to link it last time. \$\endgroup\$FryAmTheEggman– FryAmTheEggman2016年01月20日 22:51:05 +00:00Commented Jan 20, 2016 at 22:51
Python 2, 34 bytes
Python, using recursion... here comes a StackOverflow!
def f(i,j):print i;f(j,i+j)
f(1,1)
-
\$\begingroup\$ Though you can shorten it to
0:nao1v LF a+@:n:<o
if you want to. Gives 15 :) In fact, this also makes the output slightly more readable... \$\endgroup\$tomsmeding– tomsmeding2013年03月18日 07:28:57 +00:00Commented Mar 18, 2013 at 7:28 -
8\$\begingroup\$ 13 chars:
01r:nao$:@+$r
\$\endgroup\$randomra– randomra2015年04月16日 19:25:07 +00:00Commented Apr 16, 2015 at 19:25
J, 10 chars
Using built-in calculation of Taylor series coefficients so maybe little cheaty. Learned it here.
(%-.-*:)t.
(%-.-*:)t. 0 1 2 3 4 5 10 100
0 1 1 2 3 5 55 354224848179261915075
-
2\$\begingroup\$ @aditsu
(q:^-^:p) 6
is64 729
where p is even. J is probably good for what it does riddles. :) \$\endgroup\$randomra– randomra2013年03月07日 22:54:44 +00:00Commented Mar 7, 2013 at 22:54 -
2\$\begingroup\$ Even better:
(<:^-^:>) 4
is81
and<:^-^:> 4
is53.5982
. \$\endgroup\$randomra– randomra2013年03月07日 23:21:56 +00:00Commented Mar 7, 2013 at 23:21 -
2\$\begingroup\$ The emoji demonstrated here is what all J code should strive towards. On a side note, another alternative is
+/@:!&i.-
using 9 bytes. \$\endgroup\$miles– miles2016年07月31日 04:26:47 +00:00Commented Jul 31, 2016 at 4:26 -
1\$\begingroup\$ @miles Very nice! You should post it as it is entirely different from mine. \$\endgroup\$randomra– randomra2016年07月31日 10:21:59 +00:00Commented Jul 31, 2016 at 10:21
COW, 108
MoO moO MoO mOo MOO OOM MMM moO moO
MMM mOo mOo moO MMM mOo MMM moO moO
MOO MOo mOo MoO moO moo mOo mOo moo
Jelly, 3 bytes
+¡1
How it works
+¡1 Niladic link. No implicit input.
Since the link doesn't start with a nilad, the argument 0 is used.
1 Yield 1.
+ Add the left and right argument.
¡ For reasons‡, read a number n from STDIN.
Repeatedly call the dyadic link +, updating the right argument with
the value of the left one, and the left one with the return value.
‡ ¡
peeks at the two links to the left. Since there is only one, it has to be the body of the loop. Therefore, a number is read from input. Since there are no command-line arguments, that number is read from STDIN.
Hexagony, 6 bytes
1.}=+!
Ungolfed:
1 .
} = +
! .
It prints the Fibonacci sequence without any separator.
-
4\$\begingroup\$ This has the minor problem that it doesn't print any separator between the numbers. This isn't entirely well specified in the challenge though. (And I'm really happy someone is using Hexagony. :)) \$\endgroup\$Martin Ender– Martin Ender2015年11月03日 13:19:24 +00:00Commented Nov 3, 2015 at 13:19
Golfscript - single number - 12/11/10
12 chars for taking input from stdin:
~0 1@{.@+}*;
11 chars for input already on the stack:
0 1@{.@+}*;
10 chars for further defining 1 as the 0th Fibonacci number:
1.@{.@+}*;
-
1\$\begingroup\$ The option is "Calculates, given n, the nth Fibonacci number". So ditch the
~
and you have 11 chars which taken
on the stack and leaveF_n
on the stack. \$\endgroup\$Peter Taylor– Peter Taylor2011年03月31日 19:29:33 +00:00Commented Mar 31, 2011 at 19:29
Prelude, 12 bytes
One of the few challenges where Prelude is actually fairly competitive:
1(v!v)
^+^
This requires the Python interpreter which prints values as decimal numbers instead of characters.
Explanation
In Prelude, all lines are executed in parallel, with the instruction pointer traversing columns of the program. Each line has its own stack which is initialised to zero.
1(v!v)
^+^
| Push a 1 onto the first stack.
| Start a loop from here to the closing ).
| Copy the top value from the first stack to the second and vice-versa.
| Print the value on the first stack, add the top two numbers on the second stack.
| Copy the top value from the first stack to the second and vice-versa.
The loop repeats forever, because the first stack will never have a 0
on top.
Note that this starts the Fibonacci sequence from 0
.
Ruby, (削除) 29 27 25 (削除ここまで) 24 bytes
p a=b=1;loop{b=a+a=p(b)}
Edit: made it an infinite loop. ;)
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15\$\begingroup\$ did anyone notice
b=a+a=b
is a palindrome? :) \$\endgroup\$st0le– st0le2011年01月28日 11:11:42 +00:00Commented Jan 28, 2011 at 11:11 -
3\$\begingroup\$ yes st0le did :) \$\endgroup\$gnibbler– gnibbler2011年02月01日 12:24:31 +00:00Commented Feb 1, 2011 at 12:24
-
\$\begingroup\$ I know I'm late to the party, but can someone explain how the
b=a+a=b
part works? Can't seem to wrap my head around it. \$\endgroup\$Mr. Llama– Mr. Llama2012年02月07日 17:58:29 +00:00Commented Feb 7, 2012 at 17:58 -
4\$\begingroup\$ @GigaWatt, Think of it this way, Instructions are executed left to right...so
newb=olda+(a=oldb)
\$\endgroup\$st0le– st0le2012年02月08日 05:19:33 +00:00Commented Feb 8, 2012 at 5:19 -
1
Mathematica, 9 chars
Fibonacci
If built-in functions are not allowed, here's an explicit solution:
Mathematica, (削除) 33 (削除ここまで) (削除) 32 (削除ここまで)31 chars
#&@@Nest[{+##,#}&@@#&,{0,1},#]&
-
\$\begingroup\$
#&@@Nest[{#+#2,#}&@@#&,{0,1},#]&
32 chars. \$\endgroup\$chyanog– chyanog2013年03月07日 03:39:28 +00:00Commented Mar 7, 2013 at 3:39 -
1\$\begingroup\$ @chyanog 31:
#&@@Nest[{+##,#}&@@#&,{0,1},#]&
\$\endgroup\$Mr.Wizard– Mr.Wizard2013年03月18日 06:24:21 +00:00Commented Mar 18, 2013 at 6:24 -
1\$\begingroup\$ @Mr.Wizard 24 chars (26 bytes):
Round[GoldenRatio^#/√5]&
\$\endgroup\$JungHwan Min– JungHwan Min2018年04月02日 04:28:09 +00:00Commented Apr 2, 2018 at 4:28 -
1\$\begingroup\$ or 23 chars (27 bytes):
Round[((1+√5)/2)^#/√5]&
\$\endgroup\$JungHwan Min– JungHwan Min2018年04月02日 04:56:12 +00:00Commented Apr 2, 2018 at 4:56
DC (20 bytes)
As a bonus, it's even obfuscated ;)
zzr[dsb+lbrplax]dsax
EDIT: I may point out that it prints all the numbers in the fibonacci sequence, if you wait long enough.
-
16\$\begingroup\$ I wouldn't call it obfuscated -- obfuscated code is supposed to be difficult to understand, and as far as dc goes the code here is completely straightforward. \$\endgroup\$Nabb– Nabb2011年02月06日 08:17:32 +00:00Commented Feb 6, 2011 at 8:17
-
\$\begingroup\$ I think dc(1) is inherently obfuscated. \$\endgroup\$NoLongerBreathedIn– NoLongerBreathedIn2021年07月30日 17:46:15 +00:00Commented Jul 30, 2021 at 17:46
TI-BASIC, 11
By legendary TI-BASIC golfer Kenneth Hammond ("Weregoose"), from this site. Runs in O(1) time, and considers 0 to be the 0th term of the Fibonacci sequence.
int(round(√(.8)cosh(Anssinh ̅1(.5
To use:
2:int(round(√(.8)cosh(Anssinh ̅1(.5
1
12:int(round(√(.8)cosh(Anssinh ̅1(.5
144
How does this work? If you do the math, it turns out that sinh ̅1(.5)
is equal to ln φ
, so it's a modified version of Binet's formula that rounds down instead of using the (1/φ)^n
correction term. The round(
(round to 9 decimal places) is needed to prevent rounding errors.
K - 12
Calculates the n
and n-1
Fibonacci number.
{x(|+\)/0 1}
Just the nth
Fibonacci number.
{*x(|+\)/0 1}
-
\$\begingroup\$ +1 Not bad! If you could shrink it just one character (and provide me a way to test it), I'll accept your answer. :-) \$\endgroup\$C. K. Young– C. K. Young2011年04月04日 15:47:20 +00:00Commented Apr 4, 2011 at 15:47
-
\$\begingroup\$ The only way to shrink it would be to replace the function with a call to a known number: n(|+\)/0 1 Test it using this interpreter. \$\endgroup\$isawdrones– isawdrones2011年04月04日 16:04:04 +00:00Commented Apr 4, 2011 at 16:04
-
1\$\begingroup\$ Could trim a byte by using
!2
in place of0 1
:{x(|+\)/!2}
\$\endgroup\$coltim– coltim2021年07月29日 18:21:16 +00:00Commented Jul 29, 2021 at 18:21
Julia, 18 bytes
n->([1 1;1 0]^n)[]
Java, 55
I can't compete with the conciseness of most languages here, but I can offer a substantially different and possibly much faster (constant time) way to calculate the n-th number:
Math.floor(Math.pow((Math.sqrt(5)+1)/2,n)/Math.sqrt(5))
n
is the input (int or long), starting with n=1. It uses Binet's formula and rounds instead of the subtraction.
-
\$\begingroup\$ I love this solution \$\endgroup\$Andreas– Andreas2016年03月27日 02:27:47 +00:00Commented Mar 27, 2016 at 2:27
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\$\begingroup\$ This doesn't seem to work for me, but it's early and I may be missing something! Assuming
0
to be the first number in the sequence, this gives0, 0, 1, 1, 3, 4, 8, 12, 21, 33
for the first 10 numbers \$\endgroup\$Shaggy– Shaggy2017年06月16日 09:28:02 +00:00Commented Jun 16, 2017 at 9:28 -
\$\begingroup\$ @Shaggy Oops! Sorry, I introduced a bug - fixed now. \$\endgroup\$Dr. Hans-Peter Störr– Dr. Hans-Peter Störr2017年06月16日 10:06:06 +00:00Commented Jun 16, 2017 at 10:06
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4\$\begingroup\$ Hi, and welcome to PPCG! Nice first post! \$\endgroup\$Riker– Riker2016年07月05日 13:41:50 +00:00Commented Jul 5, 2016 at 13:41
Dodos, 26 bytes
dot F
F
F dip
F dip dip
How it works
The function F does all the heavy lifting; it is defined recursively as follows.
F(n) = ( F(|n - 1|), F(||n - 1| - 1|) )
Whenever n> 1, we have |n - 1| = n - 1 < n and ||n - 1| - 1| = |n - 1 - 1| = n - 2 < n, so the function returns ( F(n - 1), F(n - 2) ).
If n = 0, then |n - 1| = 1> 0; if n = 1, then ||n - 1| - 1| = |0 - 1| = 1 = 1. In both cases, the attempted recursive calls F(1) raise a Surrender exception, so F(0) returns 0 and F(1) returns 1.
For example, F(3) = ( F(1), F(2) ) = ( 1, F(0), F(1) ) = ( 1, 0, 1 ).
Finally, the main function is defined as
main(n) = sum(F(n))
so it adds up all coordinates of the vector returned by F.
For example, main(3) = sum(F(3)) = sum(1, 0, 1) = 2.
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\$\begingroup\$ I read your README (DODOS) and am super intrigued; it’s a really neat concept! But I can’t find it on Esolangs or anywhere else. Did you come up with it? \$\endgroup\$AviFS– AviFS2020年04月02日 13:44:12 +00:00Commented Apr 2, 2020 at 13:44
Whispers v3, 35 bytes
> Input
> fn
>> 2f1
>> Output 3
Try it online! (or don't, as this uses features exclusive to v3)
Simply takes the first \$n\$ elements of the infinite list of Fibonacci numbers.
-
7\$\begingroup\$ Welcome to Code Gol...hey wait a minute \$\endgroup\$2021年02月19日 19:00:12 +00:00Commented Feb 19, 2021 at 19:00
TypeScript's type system, (削除) 193 (削除ここまで) (削除) 188 (削除ここまで) 186 bytes
type L='length'
type T<N,U extends 0[]=[]>=U[L]extends N?U:T<N,[...U,0]>
type S<A,B>=T<A>extends[...infer U,...T<B>]?U[L]:0
type F<N>=N extends 0|1?N:[...T<F<S<N,1>>>,...T<F<S<N,2>>>][L]
There's no way to do I/O here, but we can use hovering to view the value (also note that the generated JS is empty):
Unfortunately, TypeScript has strict recursion limits and on F18 we get a Type instantiation is excessively deep and possibly infinite.
error:
Ungolfed version:
type NTuple<N extends number, Tup extends unknown[] = []> =
Tup['length'] extends N ? Tup : NTuple<N, [...Tup, unknown]>;
type Add<A extends number, B extends number> =
[...NTuple<A>, ...NTuple<B>]['length'];
type Sub<A extends number, B extends number> =
NTuple<A> extends [...(infer Tup), ...NTuple<B>] ? Tup['length'] : never;
type Fibonacci<N extends number> =
N extends 0 | 1 ? N : Add<Fibonacci<Sub<N, 1>>, Fibonacci<Sub<N, 2>>>;
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1\$\begingroup\$ In case you’re interested, here’s another approach, for 97 bytes: codegolf.stackexchange.com/a/268756/108687 \$\endgroup\$noodle person– noodle person2023年12月25日 16:30:41 +00:00Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 16:30
Trianguish, (削除) 152 (削除ここまで) 135 bytes
00000000: 0c05 10d8 0201 40d7 0401 4110 4102 a060
00000010: 2c02 b080 2c02 8050 20e4 0211 0710 e209
00000020: 1110 4028 0d00 6020 2902 10c3 0802 a107
00000030: 02a1 0502 8027 0910 290b 1110 403b 0890
00000040: 204d 03d0 503c 0790 602a 1071 02a0 9027
00000050: 0280 b110 8111 0402 70e2 0501 402a 0202
00000060: 9106 1107 0291 0b11 0902 702b 1040 2a10
00000070: 6110 2102 9050 2802 70b1 1071 1104 1102
00000080: 02a1 0502 802c 05
Trianguish is my newest language, a cellular automaton sort of thing which uses a triangular grid of "ops" (short for "operators"). It features self-modification, a default max int size of 216, and an interpreter which, in my opinion, is the coolest thing I've ever created (taking over forty hours and 2k SLOC so far).
This program consists of two precisely timed loops, each taking exactly (削除) 17 (削除ここまで) 11 ticks. The first, in the top right is what actually does the fibonacci part; two S-builders are placed in exactly the right position such that two things occur in exactly the same number of ticks:
- The left S-builder,
x
, copies its contents toy
- The sum of
x
andy
is copied tox
Precise timing is required, as if either of these occurred with an offset from the other, non-fibonacci numbers would appear in brief pulses, just long enough to desync everything. Another way this could have been done is with T-switches allowing only a single tick pulse from one of the S-builders, which would make precise timing unneeded, but this is more elegant and likely smaller.
The second loop, which is also 11 ticks, is pretty simple. It starts off with a 1-tick pulse of 1n
, and otherwise is 0n
, allowing an n-switch and t-switch to allow the contents of x
to be outputted once per cycle. Two S-switches are required to make the clock use an odd number of ticks, but otherwise it's just a loop of the correct number of wires.
This program prints infinitely many fibonacci numbers, though if run with Mod 216 on, it will print them, as you might guess, modulo'd by 216 (so don't do that :p).
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1\$\begingroup\$ yo dang that's a cool lang \$\endgroup\$Aiden Chow– Aiden Chow2022年09月20日 15:37:27 +00:00Commented Sep 20, 2022 at 15:37
Perl 5, (削除) 36 (削除ここまで) (削除) 35 (削除ここまで) (削除) 33 (削除ここまで) 32 bytes
-2 bytes thanks to dingledooper
1x<>~~/^(..?)*$(??{++$i})/;say$i
This works by using the regex ^(..?)*$
to count how many distinct partitions \$n\$ has as a sum of the numbers \1ドル\$ and \2ドル\$.
For example, \5ドル\$ can be represented in the following \8ドル\$ ways:
1+1+1+1+1
1+1+1+2
1+1+2+1
1+2+1+1
1+2+2
2+1+1+1
2+1+2
2+2+1
This tells us that the \$F_5=8\$.
I had this basic idea on 2014年03月05日 but it didn't occur to me until today to try coding it into a program.
The following two paragraphs explain the 33 byte version:
To count the number of distinct matches ^(..?)*$
can make in a string \$n\$ characters long, we must force Perl's regex engine to backtrack after every time the regex completes a successful match. Expressions like ^(..?)*$.
fail to do what we want, because Perl optimizes away the non-match, not attempting to evaluate the regex even once. But it so happens that it does not optimize away an attempt to match a backreference. So we make it try to match 1円
. This will always fail, but the regex engine isn't "smart" enough to know this, so it tries each time. (It's actually possible for a backreference to match after $
with the multiline flag disabled, if it captured a zero-length substring. But in this particular regex, that can never happen.)
Embedded code is used to count the number of times the regex engine completes a match. This is the (?{++$i})
, which increments the variable $i
. We then turn it into a non-match after the code block executes.
To get this down to 32 bytes, a "postponed" regular subexpression embedded code block is used, $(??{
...})
instead of $(?{
...})
. This not only executes the code, but then compiles that code's return value as a regex subexpression to be matched. Since the return value of ++$i
is the new value of $i
, this will cause the match to fail and backtrack, since a decimal number (or any non-empty string) will never match at the end of a string.
This does make the 32 byte version about 7 times slower than the 33 byte version, because it has to recompile a different decimal number as a regex after each failed match (i.e. the same number of times as the Fibonacci number that the program will output). Using (??{++$i,0})
is almost as fast as (?{++$i})1円
, as Perl optimizes the case in which the return value has not changed last time. But that would defeat the purpose of using $(??{
...})
in the first place, because it would be 1 byte longer instead of 1 byte shorter.
As to the sequence itself – for golf reasons, the program presented above defines \$F_0=1,\ F_1=1\$. To define \$F_0=0,\ F_1=1\$ we would need an extra byte:
1x<>~~/^.(..?)*$(??{++$i})/;say$i
In the versions below, (?{++$i})1円
is used for speed (at the golf cost of 1 extra byte), to make running the test suite more convenient.
Here it is as a (reasonably) well-behaved anonymous function ((削除) 47 (削除ここまで) (削除) 46 (削除ここまで) 44 bytes):
sub{my$i;1x pop~~/^.(..?)*$(?{--$i})1円/;-$i}
Try it online! - Displays \$F_0\$ through \$F_{31}\$
The above actually runs faster than the standard recursive approach (39 bytes):
sub f{my$n=pop;$n<2?$n:f($n-2)+f($n-1)}
Try it online! - Displays \$F_0\$ through \$F_{31}\$
If that is golfed down using Xcali's technique it becomes even slower, at 38 bytes:
sub f{"@_"<2?"@_":f("@_"-2)+f("@_"-1)}
Try it online! - Displays \$F_0\$ through \$F_{31}\$
or with the same indexing as my main answer here, 34 bytes:
sub f{"@_"<2||f("@_"-2)+f("@_"-1)}
Try it online! - Displays terms \0ドル\$ through \30ドル\$
See Patience, young "Padovan" for more variations and comparisons.
Perl 5 -p
, 28 bytes
1x$_~~/^(..?)*$(??{++$\})/}{
I've just learned now, 16 months after posting the main answer above, that Ton Hospel's Sum of combinations with repetition answer used this same basic technique, predating my post by 3 years.
By combining the tricks used in that answer with those already used here, the program length can be reduced even further.
Perl actually literally wraps the program in a loop using string concatenation when called with -p
, which I was surprised to learn (I would have implemented it in Perl as an emulated loop). So when this program is wrapped in while (<>) {
... ; print $_}
by the -p
flag, it becomes:
while (<>) {1x$_~~/^(..?)*$(??{++$\})/}{; print $_}
while (<>)
implicitly assigns the input from stdin, <>
, to $_
(which isn't done when using <>
normally) at the beginning of each iteration of its loop.
$\
is the print
output terminator. By default it is empty, but the above program turns it into an integer by incrementing it on every possible match found by the regex. If only one number \$n\$ is sent to the program via stdin, followed by EOF, then upon exiting the loop $\
will actually represent the \$n\$th Fibonacci number.
The while (<>)
exits when it encounters EOF, giving $_
an empty value. So then print $_
will print that empty value, followed by the value of $\
.
As such, it defeats the intended purpose of the -p
flag, as this program works properly when given a single value followed by EOF; if given multiple newline delimited values, it will output the sum of those Fibonacci numbers after finally being sent EOF (if running the program interactively, this would be done by pressing Ctrl+D at the beginning of a line).
Contrast this with an actually loopable Perl -p
program at 37 bytes:
1x$_~~/^(..?)*$(?{++$i})1円/;$i%=$_=$i
If the same multiline input is given to the 28 byte program, this happens: Try it online!
Sadly, the $\
trick can't be used with say
; it only applies to print
. The ,ドル
variable applies to both print
and say
, but only comes into play if at least two items are printed, e.g. say"",""
.
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1\$\begingroup\$ You can convert this to Perl 6 using the
ex
flag to match all possible combinations. Try it online! \$\endgroup\$Jo King– Jo King2021年04月16日 22:49:55 +00:00Commented Apr 16, 2021 at 22:49 -
\$\begingroup\$ @JoKing Awesome, thanks! I was thinking of looking into Raku, but now I definitely will. \$\endgroup\$Deadcode– Deadcode2021年04月16日 23:04:21 +00:00Commented Apr 16, 2021 at 23:04
-
\$\begingroup\$ @JoKing Have you considered defining a SBCS for Raku? It's a shame not to be able to use
∘
as it would save a byte. There are probably plenty of other examples. \$\endgroup\$Deadcode– Deadcode2021年04月17日 05:53:56 +00:00Commented Apr 17, 2021 at 5:53 -
1\$\begingroup\$ 33 with smartmatch:
1x<>~~/^(..?)*$(?{++$i})1円/;say$i
\$\endgroup\$dingledooper– dingledooper2022年02月10日 06:57:37 +00:00Commented Feb 10, 2022 at 6:57
K - 8 bytes
+/[;1;0]
Explanation
It makes use of ngn/k's recurrence builtin.
How to use
Calculates the n
th fibonacci number.
To calculate the n
th put the number at the end of the program:
+/[;1;0]40
-
2\$\begingroup\$ Welcome to Code Golf, and nice answer! \$\endgroup\$2022年10月25日 23:36:32 +00:00Commented Oct 25, 2022 at 23:36
-
\$\begingroup\$ It's annoying how this doesn't seem to be documented. (and hence I have no idea how it works, lol) \$\endgroup\$naffetS– naffetS2022年10月26日 01:16:49 +00:00Commented Oct 26, 2022 at 1:16
-
\$\begingroup\$ Yeah its not really documented because its specific to ngn/k, but here is something: ngn.codeberg.page/txt/slash.html So it just applies
F
to the previous two items. And if you use the 4 arg overload, it appliesF
to every 3 previous elements and so on. hopefully that clears some things up :) \$\endgroup\$d-static– d-static2022年10月26日 01:56:42 +00:00Commented Oct 26, 2022 at 1:56 -
\$\begingroup\$ Ah I see, so the
[...;...;]
is just a way of providing multiple arguments to+/
? The main problem is that the ngn/k documentation isn't very verbose, it just says like one word to say what a function does, so it doesn't make sense often. \$\endgroup\$naffetS– naffetS2022年10月26日 02:17:26 +00:00Commented Oct 26, 2022 at 2:17
Ruby, 25 chars
st0le's answer shortened.
p 1,a=b=1;loop{p b=a+a=b}
-
7\$\begingroup\$ Actually you can shorten it even further using
a=b=1;loop{p a;b=a+a=b}
\$\endgroup\$Ventero– Ventero2011年04月04日 12:20:53 +00:00Commented Apr 4, 2011 at 12:20 -
10\$\begingroup\$ So you st0le his answer? :P \$\endgroup\$mbomb007– mbomb0072016年01月20日 22:55:32 +00:00Commented Jan 20, 2016 at 22:55
FAC: Functional APL, 4 characters (!!)
Not mine, therefore posted as community wiki. FAC is a dialect of APL that Hai-Chen Tu apparently suggested as his PhD dissertation in 1985. He later wrote an article together with Alan J. Perlis called "FAC: A Functional APL Language". This dialect of APL uses "lazy arrays" and allow for arrays of infinite length. It defines an operator "iter" (⌼
) to allow for compact definition of some recursive sequences.
The monadic ("unary") case of ⌼
is basically Haskell's iterate
, and is defined as (F⌼) A ≡ A, (F A), (F (F A)), ...
. The dyadic ("binary") case is defined somewhat analogously for two variables: A (F⌼) B ≡ A, B, (A F B), (B F (A F B)), ...
. Why is this useful? Well, as it turns out this is precisely the kind of recurrence the Fibonacci sequence has. In fact, one of the examples given of it is
1+⌼1
producing the familiar sequence 1 1 2 3 5 8 ...
.
So, there you go, quite possibly the shortest possible Fibonacci implementation in a non-novelty programming language. :D
-
\$\begingroup\$ Oh, I accidentally un-community-wikied your post as part of my (manual) bulk-unwikiing. Oh well. ;-) \$\endgroup\$C. K. Young– C. K. Young2013年12月02日 13:57:43 +00:00Commented Dec 2, 2013 at 13:57
1.0
are1
only? \$\endgroup\$0, 1
? \$\endgroup\$