Timeline for Lambda calculus typing
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 20, 2015 at 18:44 | comment | added | MJD | It could be. Depends on who you're talking to. Why is there no $b$ and $e$ for which $b=b\to e$? | |
| May 20, 2015 at 18:00 | comment | added | hunterge | Sorry, one more question. Is it okay to leave the last answer as a=b→(b→d), or is it important to substitute a=b→(b→d) into it? | |
| May 20, 2015 at 17:45 | comment | added | hunterge | Thanks, does that suffice as a 'proof'? | |
| May 20, 2015 at 13:54 | comment | added | MJD | Your conclusion is correct, but the reason isn't quite right. For example, suppose you found $b=p\to (q\to r)$ and also $b=(s\to t)\to u$. Does this fail? No, because you can unify these types by saying that $p=s\to t$ and $u=q\to r$. But in your example, say the type of $y$ is $b$ and the type of $yy$ is $e$. Then you need $b = b\to e,ドル and there is no such $b$. In this case the unification algorithm fails. | |
| May 20, 2015 at 13:16 | vote | accept | hunterge | ||
| May 20, 2015 at 13:16 | comment | added | hunterge | That is brilliant, thank you very much! Does that mean that λx.λy.(x(yy)) is un-typable as it would mean the two y's would have different types which isn't possible? | |
| May 19, 2015 at 17:51 | history | edited | MJD | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 10 characters in body
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| S May 19, 2015 at 17:41 | history | answered | MJD | CC BY-SA 3.0 | |
| S May 19, 2015 at 17:41 | history | made wiki | Post Made Community Wiki by MJD |