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Mathematics

Timeline for Lambda calculus typing

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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May 20, 2015 at 18:44 comment added MJD It could be. Depends on who you're talking to. Why is there no $b$ and $e$ for which $b=b\to e$?
May 20, 2015 at 18:00 comment added hunterge Sorry, one more question. Is it okay to leave the last answer as a=b→(b→d), or is it important to substitute a=b→(b→d) into it?
May 20, 2015 at 17:45 comment added hunterge Thanks, does that suffice as a 'proof'?
May 20, 2015 at 13:54 comment added MJD Your conclusion is correct, but the reason isn't quite right. For example, suppose you found $b=p\to (q\to r)$ and also $b=(s\to t)\to u$. Does this fail? No, because you can unify these types by saying that $p=s\to t$ and $u=q\to r$. But in your example, say the type of $y$ is $b$ and the type of $yy$ is $e$. Then you need $b = b\to e,ドル and there is no such $b$. In this case the unification algorithm fails.
May 20, 2015 at 13:16 vote accept hunterge
May 20, 2015 at 13:16 comment added hunterge That is brilliant, thank you very much! Does that mean that λx.λy.(x(yy)) is un-typable as it would mean the two y's would have different types which isn't possible?
May 19, 2015 at 17:51 history edited MJD CC BY-SA 3.0
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S May 19, 2015 at 17:41 history answered MJD CC BY-SA 3.0
S May 19, 2015 at 17:41 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by MJD

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