| Re: A Question About 'Dial 1' in USA Calling |
|---|
> [TELECOM Digest Editor's Note: But that being the case, Lisa, why was
> Canada arbitrarily included as part of the 'USA numbering scheme'
> while Mexico was deliberatly excluded? The system back in the 1950's
> was deliberatly designed, IMO, to include all (mostly) English
> speakers and with certain other politics in mind, which was unfortunate.
> PAT]
In the 1970s, I specifically remember that Mexico was included on area
code maps. It had 2 area codes, one was 905 and the other was
90-something (902?). Later on in the 80s though, Mexico got a
international prefix and the two area codes it got assigned were
reassigned to other places in Canada and the US. So, as it was
originally conceived, it did cover North America north of Guatemala.
Steve Kl.