Tower of Babel
Senior Member
USA (American English)
In an article (8th paragraph) in the New York Times, I encountered a sequence of three consecutive punctuation marks--?,"--that struck me as very unusual:
Does the use of the comma in this example seem unusual or non-standard to other readers as well?
On a different "Today" panel on Tuesday, called "Secret Lives: Does Power Equal Promiscuity?," Ms. Matos McGreevey argued that blaming wives for their husbands' infidelities ...
It is true that U.S. typographical convention requires the closing quotation mark to come after the comma. However, if I had written the article, I think I would have omitted the comma entirely, letting the wording logically dictate to the reader that a "mental comma" should occur where an actual comma was placed.Does the use of the comma in this example seem unusual or non-standard to other readers as well?